[PD] phasor time scaling
Jamie Bullock
jamie at postlude.co.uk
Tue Dec 11 11:28:47 CET 2007
On Sun, 2007-12-09 at 18:53 +0100, Frank Barknecht wrote:
>
> Suppose I have a phasor with period p1 (and thus freq=1/p1) and I want
> to generate a signal with p2 = 1.5 * p1. Then I have (at least) two
> ways to do this ("|" should indicate the jumps):
>
> p1: |.....|.....|.....|.....|.....|
>
> p2a: |........|........|........|....
> p2b: ......|........|........|........|....
>
> Turn p1 and p2 around and you get a similar situation for trying to
> generate a phasor with a frequency of 1.5 times the original
> frequency:
>
> p2: |........|........|........|....
>
> p1a: |.....|.....|.....|.....|.....|
> p1b: ...|.....|.....|.....|.....|.....|
>
> I suppose, you don't really care which sync point to use, only that
> both phasors sync at the least common multiple of their periods,
> right? That's where I suggested to use an additional phasor with a
> period of the LCM of the phasor signals you'd like to achieve in the
> end, and sync to that. (As the LCM of two numbers generally is larger
> than the single numbers, that phasor~ would be slower.)
Ah, now I see what you're getting at. I think this is the solution I
will probably go for, although I'm still curious to know how [rate~]
works in Max/MSP. Maybe something along the lines of Cyrille's
soluton...
Jamie
--
www.postlude.co.uk
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