[PD] Percolate

Hans-Christoph Steiner hans at eds.org
Fri Mar 9 04:43:20 CET 2007

On Mar 8, 2007, at 5:14 AM, IOhannes m zmoelnig wrote:

> Chris McCormick wrote:
>> What does it mean if they violate the GPL and do so anyway? What  
>> does it
>> mean for people who use the software?
> the problem is, that asking this questions is not as simple (i think,
> being no lawyer myself).
> it is rather:
> what does it mean to ... in the US? what does it meant to ... in
> austria? what does it meant to ... in germany? and so forth.
> (there probably (but who knows...) will be little differences between
> the austrian and german legal state, but i am pretty sure that there
> will be major differences between the anglo-american and the european
> way. (and other ways too, but about these i know even less)

I think that they are not as big as you'd guess because there are  
international treaties that are all about making these laws work in  
the same ways across borders.  Copyright, patents, and trademarks act  
quite similarly in all countries that participate in these treaties  
(which is most).

>> It's confusing, which is why a real lawyer is needed to answer these
>> questions.
> this is why it would require a host of lawyers.
> and that is the fun part of all this.
> things are certainly better in CreativeCommons (among other things
> because they are less u.s.-centric than the FSF).

Hmm, that's debatable.  They don't have a license without an  
attribution clause, it's not even an option. And the CC attribution  
clause is much worse than the BSD attribution clause ever was.


> mfgasd.r
> IOhannes
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